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Sentence #5152908

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Comments

cueyayotl cueyayotl May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 4:08:17 AM UTC link Permalink

I think "Whose food is this?" IS a literal translation of the Irish...

kemushi69 kemushi69 May 20, 2016, edited May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 4:21:52 AM UTC, edited May 20, 2016 at 4:37:32 AM UTC link Permalink

It's definitely something that I would say if, say, I saw an unattended plate of food on a table and I wanted to move it to make space for myself. I'd want to talk to the owner before interfering with their stuff, so "who owns this?" is a more direct way of achieving that.
It might not be good *manners* for me to raise my voice to find the owner like this (since I'm asking *everyone* there rather than making a discreet inquiry---which everyone would most likely filter out), but it's certainly a correct translation, grammatically correct and not just a word-for-word translation (which would literally be "who *with* the food this").
It would be the same thing if I found a jacket that was ringing. I'd probably lift it up and say "who owns this jacket? (you have a phone call)" instead of taking some more timid linguistic route to finding the owner.

kemushi69 kemushi69 May 20, 2016, edited May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 4:50:46 AM UTC, edited May 20, 2016 at 5:40:13 AM UTC link Permalink

@cueyayoti

It might look like it, but actually there's only one way of expressing that sentence in Irish. I think that maybe you're looking at the word order and relating it to the passive voice in English (eg, "to whom am I speaking"). But since there's (substantially) only one way to put it in Irish ("Cé atá mé ag caint leis?"), it admits both translations: "to whom am I speaking?" and "who am I speaking to?"
That's very similar to the question at hand: is it "who owns this?" or "whose thing is this?". In Irish, it's both.

kemushi69 kemushi69 May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 4:59:54 AM UTC link Permalink

I'm in Ireland, so some of the things I say are in what's called "Hiberno-English". Things like "I was only after eating" == "I had just finished eating" or "he had a mood on him" == " he was in a mood" come from the Irish language ("Bhí me tar éis ithe", "Bhí fonn/grá/etc. air") but for the most part we speak English like the English. Only some of us speak better English than they do!
The only Hiberno-English phraseology I've used here (once) has been to replace "you" (in the plural) with "ye", since English doesn't distinguish between the two and I wanted to translate a sentence with it from Irish.

cueyayotl cueyayotl May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 6:42:18 AM UTC link Permalink

@kemushi69, I didn't say there wasn't only one way of expressing this sentence in Irish, and I didn't really relate it to English at all (I actually related it to Russian, which I am more familiar with than Irish), nor did I say that the translation (or anything else for that matter) was incorrect. I only remarked that the sentence "Whose food is this?" is the closest in literal meaning to the Irish without sounding unnatural (i.e. "Who with the food this").

kemushi69 kemushi69 May 20, 2016 May 20, 2016 at 6:01:53 PM UTC link Permalink

cueyayot, CK asked a question first and I was trying to reply to that.

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License: CC BY 2.0 FR

Logs

This sentence was initially added as a translation of sentence #871753Cé leis an bia seo?.

Who owns this food?

added by kemushi69, May 20, 2016

linked by kemushi69, May 20, 2016

#5153050

linked by duran, May 20, 2016

#5153050

unlinked by Horus, May 20, 2016

linked by Horus, May 20, 2016

linked by Yomawaru, May 20, 2016

linked by Guybrush88, September 2, 2022