The Philippines have been administered from Mexico starting from 1565 and Mexico had been conquered in 1521. I doubt that "Mexican Spanish" was already distinct then, hardly after one generation...

@sacredceltic Not in the beginning, no, but I don't think the impact would've been immediate and resolute, do you?
As the years passed and the Mexican Spanish dialect became distinct from Castilian, THAT was what mainly influenced Tagalog.
Remember that Spanish control didn't end until almost 1900. That's over 300 years.

It’s an interesting question.
The fact is that the Spaniards that were there, all young men in their prime, soon interbred with indian women, Aztecs as well as from allied tribes who helped defeat them ( and they were lots...), so we can surmise that the mexican hispano-indian accent emerged early among this new mixed-race elite.
I’m not a great admirer of the achievements of Spanish colonisation, but one stroke of genius was to understand the immensity of the new territories across the Pacific ocean and to subsequently make the decision to decentralise authority very quickly to Mexico and Lima.